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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q81-Q86):

NEW QUESTION # 81
An infection preventionist is notified of a patient with Gram negative diplococci from a cerebral spinal fluid specimen. The patient was intubated during ambulance transport and intravenous lines are placed after arrival to the Emergency Department (ED). The patient was immediately placed in Droplet Precautions upon admission to the ED. Which of the following statements is true regarding the need for evaluating exposure to communicable illness?

A. Follow-up evaluation is not required for this laboratory finding.
B. Ambulance personnel should be evaluated for possible exposure.
C. Follow-up evaluation is not necessary as the appropriate precautions were promptly instituted.
D. ED personnel should be evaluated for possible exposure.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is C, "Ambulance personnel should be evaluated for possible exposure," as this statement is true regarding the need for evaluating exposure to communicable illness. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, the presence of Gram negative diplococci in a cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) specimen is suggestive of a serious bacterial infection, most likely Neisseria meningitidis, which causes meningococcal disease. This condition is highly contagious and can be transmitted through respiratory droplets or direct contact with respiratory secretions, particularly during procedures like intubation (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 - Identify infectious disease processes). The patient was intubated during ambulance transport, creating a potential aerosol-generating procedure (AGP) that could have exposed ambulance personnel to infectious droplets before Droplet Precautions were instituted upon arrival at the Emergency Department (ED). Therefore, evaluating ambulance personnel for possible exposure is necessary to assess their risk and determine if post-exposure prophylaxis (e.g., antibiotics) or monitoring is required.
Option A (follow-up evaluation is not required for this laboratory finding) is incorrect because the identification of Gram negative diplococci in CSF is a critical finding that warrants investigation due to the potential for meningococcal disease, a reportable and transmissible condition. Option B (ED personnel should be evaluated for possible exposure) is less applicable since the patient was immediately placed in Droplet Precautions upon ED admission, minimizing exposure risk to ED staff after that point, though it could be considered if exposure occurred before precautions were fully implemented. Option D (follow-up evaluation is not necessary as the appropriate precautions were promptly instituted) is inaccurate because the prompt institution of Droplet Precautions in the ED does not retroactively address the exposure risk during ambulance transport, where precautions were not in place.
The focus on evaluating ambulance personnel aligns with CBIC's emphasis on identifying and mitigating transmission risks associated with communicable diseases, particularly in high-risk settings like ambulance transport (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents). This step is supported by CDC guidelines, which recommend exposure evaluation and prophylaxis for close contacts of meningococcal disease cases (CDC Meningococcal Disease Management, 2021).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.1 - Identify infectious disease processes; Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Meningococcal Disease Management, 2021.

NEW QUESTION # 82
A healthcare worker experiences a percutaneous exposure to a patient with untreated HIV. The next step is to:

A. Retest for HIV after 6 months before deciding on PEP.
B. Offer post-exposure prophylaxis only if symptoms develop.
C. Wait for HIV test results before starting treatment.
D. Initiate HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) within 2 hours.

Answer: D

Explanation:
* HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be initiated within 2 hours to be most effective.
* Waiting for results (B) delays critical treatment.
* PEP should always be offered after high-risk exposure, not only if symptoms develop (C).
* Retesting after 6 months (D) is recommended but should not delay PEP initiation.
CBIC Infection Control References:
* APIC Text, "Bloodborne Pathogens and PEP," Chapter 11.

NEW QUESTION # 83
What inflammatory reaction may occur in the eye after cataract surgery due to a breach in disinfection and sterilization of intraocular surgical instruments?

A. Toxic Posterior Segment Syndrome
B. Toxic Anterior Segment Syndrome
C. Bacterial conjunctivitis
D. Endophthalmitis

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is C, "Toxic Anterior Segment Syndrome," as this is the inflammatory reaction that may occur in the eye after cataract surgery due to a breach in disinfection and sterilization of intraocular surgical instruments. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, Toxic Anterior Segment Syndrome (TASS) is a sterile, acute inflammatory reaction that can result from contaminants introduced during intraocular surgery, such as endotoxins, residues from improper cleaning, or chemical agents left on surgical instruments due to inadequate disinfection or sterilization processes (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.3 - Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment). TASS typically presents within 12-48 hours post-surgery with symptoms like pain, redness, and anterior chamber inflammation, and it is distinct from infectious causes because it is not microbial in origin. A breach in reprocessing protocols, such as failure to remove detergents or improper sterilization, is a known risk factor, making it highly relevant to infection prevention efforts in surgical settings.
Option A (endophthalmitis) is an infectious inflammation of the internal eye structures, often caused by bacterial or fungal contamination, which can also result from poor sterilization but is distinguished from TASS by its infectious nature and longer onset (days to weeks). Option B (bacterial conjunctivitis) affects the conjunctiva and is typically a surface infection unrelated to intraocular surgery or sterilization breaches of surgical instruments. Option D (toxic posterior segment syndrome) is not a recognized clinical entity in the context of cataract surgery; inflammation in the posterior segment is more commonly associated with infectious endophthalmitis or other conditions, not specifically linked to reprocessing failures.
The focus on TASS aligns with CBIC's emphasis on ensuring safe reprocessing to prevent adverse outcomes in surgical patients, highlighting the need for rigorous infection control measures (CBIC Practice Analysis,
2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks). This is supported by CDC and American Academy of Ophthalmology guidelines, which identify TASS as a preventable complication linked to reprocessing errors (CDC Guidelines for Disinfection and Sterilization, 2019; AAO TASS Task Force Report, 2017).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.3 - Ensure safe reprocessing of medical equipment, 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks. CDC Guidelines for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities, 2019. AAO TASS Task Force Report,
2017.

NEW QUESTION # 84
During an outbreak of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), the infection preventionist should FIRST:

A. Review adherence to ventilator bundle elements.
B. Implement preemptive antibiotic therapy in all ventilated patients.
C. Perform bacterial cultures from ventilator circuits.
D. Isolate all ventilated patients in negative pressure rooms.

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Reviewing compliance with VAP prevention bundles (e.g., head-of-bed elevation, oral care, sedation breaks) is the first step in outbreak control.
* Preemptive antibiotics (B) are not recommended due to antibiotic resistance risks.
* Negative pressure rooms (C) are not required for VAP.
* Ventilator circuit cultures (D) do not guide patient management.
CBIC Infection Control References:
* APIC Text, "VAP Prevention Measures," Chapter 11.

NEW QUESTION # 85
An infection preventionist, Cancer Committee, and Intravenous Therapy Department are studying the incidence of infections in patients with triple lumen catheters. Which of the following is essential to the quality improvement process?

A. Recommendations for intervention must be approved by the governing board.
B. A monitoring system must be in place following implementation of interventions.
C. Establish subjective criteria for outcome measurement.
D. Study criteria must be approved monthly by the Cancer Committee.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is D, "A monitoring system must be in place following implementation of interventions," as this is essential to the quality improvement (QI) process. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, a key component of any QI initiative, such as studying the incidence of infections in patients with triple lumen catheters, is the continuous evaluation of interventions to assess their effectiveness and ensure sustained improvement. A monitoring system allows the infection preventionist (IP), Cancer Committee, and Intravenous Therapy Department to track infection rates, identify trends, and make data-driven adjustments to infection control practices post-intervention (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.4 - Evaluate the effectiveness of infection prevention and control interventions). This step is critical to validate the success of implemented strategies, such as catheter care protocols, and to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
Option A (establish subjective criteria for outcome measurement) is not ideal because QI processes rely on objective, measurable outcomes (e.g., infection rates per 1,000 catheter days) rather than subjective criteria to ensure reliability and reproducibility. Option B (recommendations for intervention must be approved by the governing board) is an important step for institutional support and resource allocation, but it is a preparatory action rather than an essential component of the ongoing QI process itself. Option C (study criteria must be approved monthly by the Cancer Committee) suggests an unnecessary administrative burden; while initial approval of study criteria is important, monthly re-approval is not a standard QI requirement unless mandated by specific policies, and it does not directly contribute to the improvement process.
The emphasis on a monitoring system aligns with CBIC's focus on using surveillance data to guide and refine infection prevention efforts, ensuring that interventions for triple lumen catheter-related infections are effective and adaptable (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies). This approach supports a cycle of continuous improvement, which is foundational to reducing catheter-associated bloodstream infections (CABSI) in healthcare settings.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competencies 2.4 - Evaluate the effectiveness of infection prevention and control interventions, 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 86
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